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Last login: Tuesday, March 8, 2011
Why does the author, Kay Hymowitz, assume successful women and/or feminism are responsible for the supposed degradation of masculinity? While pop culture's influence does not remain unnoticed, can this really be attributed to the lifestyles and conditions of all men and their alleged failure to be active "role models"? Is she referring to working class men, immigrant men, refugee men, queer men, or a very different/specific section of the male population? Furthermore, how is Hymowitz evading her own irresponsible and sexist position in suggesting that women cannot be effective role models without the presence/assistance of men? If all women are, in fact, "out-performing" and "out-maturing" men, why is it that they still need men in order to be competent and satisfied mothers?
March 8, 2011 at 12:31 p.m.
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